#41

Lysenko was Stalin’s chosen. He’d been born to a peasant farming family in Odessa, Ukraine during the early years of Stalin’s introduction of collective farming. Collectivisation entailed ‘encouraging’ those who worked the land to do so as part of vast farms managed and run by the state uprooting traditional structures of farming all over the Soviet Union. The disruption this revolution caused lead to declining productivity in Russian agriculture during the 1920s and 1930s. Russia’s climate also lowered yields, with long winters and short growing seasons. Lysenko had been trained in agricultural research under this regime. He was moved to study in Azerbaijan, away from his family. It was there that he discovered the process of vernalisation – chilling winter-cropping seeds then planting them in Spring, shortening the growing season and increasing the yield an area could produce. This instantly brought him to the attention of Stalin. His humble background and the implications for Soviet agricultural productivity turned Lysenko into a Communist superstar. He was rapidly accelerated up the scientific hierarchy. Unfortunately, he was not a trained scientist. All his expertise were gained from his farming background and his results the product of using traditional farming knowledge.

Concurrent with his meteoric rise, events back in his homeland of Ukraine had taken a much, much darker turn. The population was starving. The causes were various, but Stalin’s dictats ensured that not only did millions die, but that as few people as possible knew about it. The nationalist ideals of the Ukranian population were Stalin’s target. Their resistance to collectivism, among other things, was a problem. The Holodomor was the solution that Stalin employed. Once the crops failed, Stalin saw to it that relief was unavailable and help would not be forthcoming. Grain was traded for export instead of feeding the populus. More than seven million died, with Odessa suffering some of the worst of it. Whether Lysenko knew of this from his lofty perch at the top of Stalin’s favoured list is not known. However he was busy asserting his power himself. He’d made the scientifically dubious claim that the offspring of vernalised seeds inhertied their traits, something that genetics already knew couldn’t happen. .

#42
Lysenko did Holodomor
#43
are ytou posting that as an example of bourgeois historical revisionism or as a thing you believe
#44
Stalin: I didn't do the famines. No evidence.
#45

chickeon posted:

are ytou posting that as an example of bourgeois historical revisionism or as a thing you believe



Yes i think that's an accurate description of what happened. The revisionism to me seems to be in the timeline and not the mortality rates. If there's any question of whether it happened or not I can vouch for the fact that it did because its part of my family history and my grandma barely survived it. But the holodomor discussion in ukraine is of crop failure and the ensuing cover up and attempted eradication of the Ukrainian identity. Granted there are conspiracies that Stalin did it intentionally, but that the whole thing was an orchestrated attempt to burden the revolution is just a counter-conspiracy.

#46

getfiscal posted:

the fact that they happened to win is like a child's view of history, it doesn't tell you much in itself. if hitler had chanced to capture moscow it wouldn't have retroactively changed all the factors at play during decisions over collectivization.



please stop reading alternate history forums thanks. they are bad and full of neonazis and people who like to jerk off over stolypin

#47
To answer your question OP, tHE c o n s E n s US is: yes starvation happened; For 101 reasons it is fairly reactionary to try and pin the whole thing all on Stalin, Lysenko or any other Communist hero; The usually tossed about number of 7-10 million are the numerologic exaggerations of lunatics who desperately need Stalin to be "worse than" Hitler; There is a small faction of these resident here who will stay up very, very past bedtimes to spam this flavor of imperialist lies, without regard to the current thread topic, any cogent discussion, evidence, standards of evidence &c., but that's typical of everywhere for some reason.
#48
im unironically shocked and amazed that having new people come post is generating (relatively) good threads. thank u everyone for participating
#49

parabolart posted:

chickeon posted:

are ytou posting that as an example of bourgeois historical revisionism or as a thing you believe

Yes i think that's an accurate description of what happened. The revisionism to me seems to be in the timeline and not the mortality rates. If there's any question of whether it happened or not I can vouch for the fact that it did because its part of my family history and my grandma barely survived it. But the holodomor discussion in ukraine is of crop failure and the ensuing cover up and attempted eradication of the Ukrainian identity. Granted there are conspiracies that Stalin did it intentionally, but that the whole thing was an orchestrated attempt to burden the revolution is just a counter-conspiracy.



It's clearly an emotionally loaded issue for you, so why should we take your perspective seriously? Your lineage's narrative clouds rationality, your grandmother's "lived experience" really means next to nothing compared to scholarly evidence.

Also lol @ "eradication of the Ukrainian identity," do you even know what Korenizatsiya is? Maybe your right-nationalist grandma didn't tell you about that.

OT: the Holodomor is an insane tale spun by Ukrainian neonazis.

Cheers.

#50
my favorite thing about the holodomor is the word itself, coined in the cold war 80s as a forced analogy to the holocaust
#51
It's a really bad word.
#52
Faux Shoah is better
#53
maybe that's what that old lf poster's name meant
#54

c_man posted:

im unironically shocked and amazed that having new people come post is generating (relatively) good threads. thank u everyone for participating



Someone make the pol pot thread

#55

babyhueypnewton posted:

another way to say all that is gf often asks fox news questions where the act of asking the question is already highly ideological and the false equivalence implied in the question (in this case the efficiency of the USSR's preparation for war in comparison to something) has the effect of anti-communism. is obama a member of ISIS? just asking questions bro.



#56
[account deactivated]
#57
although it is pretty suspicious that the OTHER donald is primarily known for his accumulation of wealth, one might say his getting of the fiscal...umm...stuff?
#58
BnW I think that's an accurate representation of my beliefs, at least as I stated them in this thread. The problem for me is despite Stalin and co. talking about material incentives for the peasants and slow change, in reality that's not what happened. the holomodor is an anti-communist invention but collectivization was violent and forceful everytime it was attempted. it's important to emphasize that immediate collectivization is a bad idea, every communist state has had a NEP type period, but this isn't to make collectivization less violent just more likely to succeed.

When I say violent I don't mean 'authoritarian', most of the violence of collectivization comes from the masses themselves who are unleashed on their former oppressors. but the essential point for me is that the change from a feudal agricultural mode of production to a capitalist one is a qualitative change and thus requires the violent repression of one class by another for the same reason the change from capitalism to socialism requires violent repression even if one 'puts it off' with an NEP. i'm open to changing my views here though this is the first time i've seen a proper critique of Preobrazhensky
#59
I've reread this thread and its really good
#60
huey this is a really curious and precarious position because you're mounting what is actually a very extreme critique of stalin in the guise of support. you're directly attributing to stalin a very extreme failure of policy and accepting bourgeois imperialist historical assessment of collectivisation. this suggestion of failure in particular is unambiguous because you're directly suggesting that the practical execution of the five year plans in an absolute sense contradicted stalin's directives. however you're suggesting that this failure was actually a good thing, because it inadvertently led to the practical fulfilment of your fundamentally trotskyite ideological principles

it's evident fact that the practical execution of collectivisation contained a myriad of particular failures and was not nearly so neat as stalin's directives were on paper. getfiscal has already broached these. but going so far as to suggest what are bourgeois assertions of a war on the entirety of the peasantry are true is absurd. it's vindicating completely the western presentations of the supposed barbarism of stalin, you're just suggesting that this barbarism was actually a good thing

also it goes without saying that these ideas are fundamentally revisionist and opposed to marxism-leninism. while you are correct that transition to socialism necessitates the suppression of class enemies, what you are advocating for is the suppression and designation of the entirety of the peasantry as an enemy of the proletarian revolution. this is the bloodthirsty and barbaric chauvinism of trotsky and his ilk
#61
regardless i am glad that you are willing to cooperate and confess your opposition to the party. i hope you will serve your labour delegation diligently.
#62
Hmm you're correct that this is basically what comes out of bourgeois history that is sympathetic to the USSR. Getty in particular argues that the peasantry as a whole had class interests that were opposed to the 1936 constitution. I don't believe that, the kulaks were clearly a separate class as was super obvious in other contexts (North Korea for example where they had direct ties to the former Japanese collaborationist system) but I can see how it creeped into my brain through uncritically using bourgeois economic history to make a point. I'll gladly self-criticize and take my time in the countryside.
#63
I'm still not sure how GF was 'defending' Stalin though which partially caused my overreaction in the other direction to try to make an ontological point.
#64
the best way to defend stalin and his legacy is to take him seriously as a real figure and critically assess his successes and failures. when "defences" of stalin are conducted as largely superficial and rhetorical exercises - wielding him as a symbol to lend credence to some external thesis - you open yourself up to the perversion and defilement of stalin as a figure. your presentation of stalin as a left deviationist is an example of this. it's not just some unfortunate coincidence that you, who is accusing gf of asking "fox news questions" to defame stalin, is simultaneously forwarding a profoundly negative assessment of stalin
#65

blinkandwheeze posted:

the best way to defend stalin and his legacy is to take him seriously as a real figure and critically assess his successes and failures. when "defences" of stalin are conducted as largely superficial and rhetorical exercises - wielding him as a symbol to lend credence to some external thesis - you open yourself up to the perversion and defilement of stalin as a figure. your presentation of stalin as a left deviationist is an example of this. it's not just some unfortunate coincidence that you, who is accusing gf of asking "fox news questions" to defame stalin, is simultaneously forwarding a profoundly negative assessment of stalin



I feel like this isn't a fair critique. My main point is that the holomodor is a political concept which, by acknowledging its existence, tautologically proves that socialism is bad. While my usage of bourgeois economics was incorrect in failing to separate the peasants into revolutionary and reactionary forces, my overall point remains correct. To dispute the holomodor is to attack its immanent logic which has nothing to do with Stalin or the USSR. You can dispute my analysis of Stalin but to then take this and claim that the USSR and China had different purposes in collectivization is to really claim that socialism doesn't really exist at all and every case must be analyzed separately as historically contingent disguised as narrow historicism.

Even if the collectivization of agriculture happened differently in China and the USSR, the real ideological critiques behind the 'holomodor' narrative remain. Panopticon was foolish to use the 'rule of law' as a critique of socialism since it is an incoherent concept but he basically explained the liberal view of socialism which no one really addressed. Critiquing the holomodor narrative historically and empirically is useful for us since we're all Marxists and generally defend the USSR but it is empiricism when used against an ideological critique which you haven't addressed at all.

#66
Another way of saying that is that 'mistakes' exist on the level of empiricism but not on the level of philosophy. The ontological existence of a mistake like starvation implies an pre-empirical ideological stance (socialism) which is what liberals are really attacking, even if they are not aware of this. Of course one could say, in a strictly utilitarian manner, that capitalism is worse by this same standard so socialism doesn't actually have to be good. But this is precisely what you and GF attacked and now you have to justify collectivization and the inevitable mistakes that follow as good rather than simply better. One could also avoid this entirely by saying it is historically necessary and values do not enter into it at all. But this is precisely what you attacked as left-deviationism since in this sense Trotsky was simply following Marx's abstract economic logic. I agreed with you but you haven't actually made any positive claims, simply taken a narrow critique and generalized it without the work required to do so.
#67

babyhueypnewton posted:

I feel like this isn't a fair critique. My main point is that the holomodor is a political concept which, by acknowledging its existence, tautologically proves that socialism is bad. While my usage of bourgeois economics was incorrect in failing to separate the peasants into revolutionary and reactionary forces, my overall point remains correct. To dispute the holomodor is to attack its immanent logic which has nothing to do with Stalin or the USSR.



i think you're being very unclear here. no, the "holodomor" in the sense of a discrete and engineered starvation of the ukraine motivated by an attempt to eradicate ukrainian identity does not exist. there was however a real crisis in agriculture across the periphery of the soviet union centred in particular on ukraine and kazakhstan. while the human cost of such crisis is clearly exaggerated in western accounts, and while they were likely ultimately the consequence of environmental factors beyond any individual's control, these were nevertheless debilitating famine. acknowledging and critically examining state response to these events, as gf did, does not affirm the "holodmor" narrative any more than the internal response of the cpsu or the commentary of mao tse-tung did

babyhueypnewton posted:

You can dispute my analysis of Stalin but to then take this and claim that the USSR and China had different purposes in collectivization is to really claim that socialism doesn't really exist at all and every case must be analyzed separately as historically contingent disguised as narrow historicism.



i frankly have little idea what this means. as far as i'm aware, i'm actually asserting that collectivisation as conducted in the ussr and in the prc were efforts fundamentally coherent with each other. mao tse-tung adopted and reinforced lenin and stalin's line on agriculture and the peasantry while clarifying and refining it. this involved subjecting its theoretical and practical shortcomings to critique but this was nevertheless an advancement of the marxist-leninist line on agriculture and the peasantry

the fundamental "different purpose" i am asserting is between not that of china and the ussr but between the practical experience of developing agriculture under socialism and that of the bourgeois of process primitive accumulation

babyhueypnewton posted:

Another way of saying that is that 'mistakes' exist on the level of empiricism but not on the level of philosophy. The ontological existence of a mistake like starvation implies an pre-empirical ideological stance (socialism) which is what liberals are really attacking, even if they are not aware of this. Of course one could say, in a strictly utilitarian manner, that capitalism is worse by this same standard so socialism doesn't actually have to be good. But this is precisely what you and GF attacked and now you have to justify collectivization and the inevitable mistakes that follow as good rather than simply better. One could also avoid this entirely by saying it is historically necessary and values do not enter into it at all.



i don't understand what you're talking about

babyhueypnewton posted:

But this is precisely what you attacked as left-deviationism since in this sense Trotsky was simply following Marx's abstract economic logic.



trotsky wasn't following marx in the slightest. this is one of the most fundamental flaws of "primitive socialist accumulation" - in marx, primitive accumulation refers to purely a human relationship belong to the particular productive concept of the development of capitalism. recall the story from volume one of capital:

First of all, Wakefield discovered that in the Colonies, property in money, means of subsistence, machines, and other means of production, does not as yet stamp a man as a capitalist if there be wanting the correlative — the wage-worker, the other man who is compelled to sell himself of his own free will. He discovered that capital is not a thing, but a social relation between persons, established by the instrumentality of things. Mr. Peel, he moans, took with him from England to Swan River, West Australia, means of subsistence and of production to the amount of £50,000. Mr. Peel had the foresight to bring with him, besides, 300 persons of the working class, men, women, and children. Once arrived at his destination, “Mr. Peel was left without a servant to make his bed or fetch him water from the river.” Unhappy Mr. Peel who provided for everything except the export of English modes of production to Swan River!



primitive accumulation does not merely refer to any particular arrangement of "things" that can be abstracted to any other context. it is purely the description of the particular historical process at the foundations of the capitalist mode of production. there is absolutely nothing in marx's reasoning that suggests the principles of primitive accumulation can be abstracted as generally applicable to the development of socialism. the idea that it does is purely a farcical product of trotsky's imagination

#68
BHPNs heart is in the right place but unfortunately for everyone hes also a giant dickhead
#69
To admit that anyone starved is to criticize communism because people starved under kkkapitalism too
#70

babyhueypnewton posted:

My main point is that the holomodor is a political concept which, by acknowledging its existence, tautologically proves that socialism is bad.



I too am profoundly autistic

#71
There was a reddit post about the cultural revolution recently which should make my point clearer. Reddit thought its system of upvotes distills bourgeous ideology. Here's the top voted response:

Hey, thank you for doing this AMA.
However, I have some questions for you, I am ethnically Chinese. My paternal grandfather fought and bled in the Chinese revolution for Mao. He was in the Chinese Communist Army and Party from 1940 onwards and fought in some of the bloodiest battles during the wars and rose to the rank equivalent of Colonel. He told me when he was still alive that he had 4 of his friends die in his arms when he fought against the Japanese and the KMT. He had a picture taken with Mao himself which my family still has.



anti-imperialism is easy for liberals, at least when it's a historical question rather than a political one.

During the cultural revolution he was purged from the People's liberation army for refusing to denounce his superior (the Marshal He Long who was another revolutionary hero who was unjustly accused of being a counter-revolutionary), and tossed into a labor camp. He was subjected to physical and mental torture for years before being released. My grandfather's home was raided by red guards, my grandmother had to flee with my father, uncle and aunt into the countryside to escape further persecution. To this day those memories still pain her.



The fundamental point of this post is to question the ideology of the cultural revolution and by extension the great leap forward (which were motivated by the same non-Soviet development path). To answer this question one must not simply criticize capitalism or apologize for the mistakes that will happen under a young, revolutionary society like China. The fundamental question is "why do intellectuals, petty-bourgeoisie, and nationalistic reactionaries from the New Democracy period deserve to be socialized (by force) under a socialist system." To claim that the Cultural Revolution was excessive or mistaken is to miss the point since the very existence of the cultural revolution implied the mass justice of true democracy free of the fetters of liberal rule of law.

My maternal grandfather and grandmother were both college professors who were forced into "airplane positions" (http://www.harunyahya.com/image/communist_ambush/mao-newsweek05.16.jpg) for hours. They were publicly humiliated by their students, paraded in dunce caps, subjected to struggle sessions which drove many of their colleagues to suicides, and worried daily that red guards were going to come into their home and steal everything from them.
Both of my parents were sent down youth who were forced into the countryside because Mao decided to toss away the young people who supported him when they outlived their usefulness, even if they did not participate in the cultural revolution at all.



Again we are questioning the very existence of the cultural revolution, in many ways the moment when Chinese communism ceased to be broadly nationalistic and became communist. But what is interesting here is that even 'devoted' communists were tossed away. One here is not simply defending the logic of socialism but the logic of permanent revolution (if you'll excuse my trot language).

In this context can you answer me the following:
1) Do you consider my grandfather a "revisionist"?
2) Did my intellectual grandparents deserved to be in "struggle sessions"?
3) In the light of the brutality and cruelty the cultural revolution inflicted even on the men who fought to found the People's Republic, how can you consider this to be a positive for China?
4) Do you feel the physical and emotional cost of a generation of youth, often middle and high schoolers, being used as political tools against domestic political opponents was justified?
5) Do you think the Chinese people's collective negative view of the cultural revolution today is correct?
Thank you if you happen to read this.
Edit: I've being getting messages about today's politics so I just want to clarify. My post is meant to raise a matter of Chinese history and my family's connection to it. I know that emotions are running high in the current American electoral cycle but I don't consider my post to be very relevant because the situation in China in 1966 and America in 2016 are simply not comparable.
For those of you interested, I strongly recommend Mao's Last Revolution by Michael Schoenhals and Roderick MacFarquhar for further readings.
Edit 2: Quite a few people have messaged me similar stories about their families and I thank you for sharing them.



We re not scared of bourgeois propaganda. But we have to understand what it is. The counting of bodies or the polemics against socialist totalitarianism are a paper tiger. The real objection to socialism hidden beneath all of this propaganda is that socialism is violent, it causes the underdevelopment of societies, and it abolishes democracy and replaces it with an undemocratic system. Why did the USSR have famine? One could respond and say this is an inevitability of a revolutionary society and rapid industrialization in the face of fascism. This is a historical answer but not an ideological answer. Why did socialism have to exist in the first place if it leads to starvation? Why do socialists historicize famine when to labor aristocrats in the first world this is an unacceptable condition? To qualify labor aristocracy as the condition of not being famished is historically accurate but not sufficient since capitalism presents itself as the ideology of abundance. To attack it on these terms is slave morality, it is avoiding the positive meaning of socialism for human existence.

The only possible response, which I have been trying to express in historical terms, is the existence of divine violence. To actually respond to panopticons objection in the Stalin thread, here is Benjamin:

This thesis of natural law that regards violence as a natural
datum is diametrically opposed to that of positive law, which
sees violence as a product of history. If natural law can judge
all existing law only in criticizing its ends, so positive law can
judge all evolving law only in criticizing its means. If justice is
the criterion of ends, legality is that of means. Notwithstanding
this antithesis, however, both schools meet in their common
basic dogma: just ends can be attained by justified means, justified
means used for just ends. Natural law attempts, by the
justness of the ends, to "justify" the means,* positive law to
"guarantee" the justness of the ends through the justification
of the means



Revolutionary violence is its own justification if it progresses towards communism and the liberation of mankind. To actually address the 'holomodor' on its own terms, even if these terms are hidden behind ideology, is to defend violence itself rather than apologize for violence as a mistake or consequence of an immature state. This does not preclude historicizing collectivization or justifying the USSR/China in pragmatic terms but like I said it does not explain it in ontological terms (or perhaps ontic terms if that helps).

Side note: the problem with Zizek is not his concept of revolutionary violence and his rehabilitation of Robespierre but his cowardice in the face of defending actual revolutionary violence in the USSR, China, North Korea, and basically every socialist state he would rather ignore for shitty hollywood movies.

#72

babyhueypnewton posted:

Revolutionary violence is its own justification if it progresses towards communism and the liberation of mankind.



this is a contradiction in terms. revolutionary violence is not be justified by itself alone if it is justified instead by its instrumental contribution to a subsequent state. this is exactly the kind of reasoning benjamin articulated divine violence in opposition to. i don't think you understand his critique of violence at all

Edited by blinkandwheeze ()

#73
invoking benjamin's concept of divine violence as a defence of the actions of the soviet state - or any state at all - is about as absurd as invoking stalin to defend the thesis of trotsky

Edited by blinkandwheeze ()

#74
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#75

blinkandwheeze posted:

babyhueypnewton posted:

Revolutionary violence is its own justification if it progresses towards communism and the liberation of mankind.

this is a contradiction in terms. revolutionary violence is not be justified by itself alone if it is justified instead by its instrumental contribution to a subsequent state. this is exactly the kind of reasoning benjamin articulated divine violence in opposition to. i don't think you understand his critique of violence at all



For the function of violence in lawmaking is twofold, in the sense that lawmaking pursues as its end, with violence as the means, what is to be established as law, but at the moment of instatement does not dismiss violence; rather, at this very moment of lawmaking, it specifically establishes as law not an end unalloyed by violence, but one necessarily and intimately bound to it, under the title of power. Lawmaking is power making, and, to that extent, an immediate manifestation of violence. Justice is the principle of all divine end making, power the principle of all mythical lawmaking.



of course violence is necessary in that it creates socialism and the betterment of life. but Benjamin (and myself) emphasize that violence is in-itself constitutive of justice and the legitimacy of socialism. as far as I can tell, since you haven't yet made a positive claim, you believe the violence of collectivization was a mistake or a side effect of the immaturity of the socialist regime rather than an immanent quality of a revolutionary society which abolishes 'mistakes' and replaces them with revolutionary justice.

#76
christ huey what you are suggesting is that benjamin is declaring that instrumental violence - as long as it is instrumentalised in pursuit of a particular end - can be in itself constitutive of justice. this is the exact opposite of what benjamin is arguing

This thesis of natural law that regards violence as a natural datum is diametrically opposed to that of positive law, which sees violence as a product of history. If natural law can judge all existing law only in criticizing its ends, so positive law can judge all evolving law only in criticizing its means. If justice is the criterion of ends, legality is that of means. Notwithstanding this antithesis, however, both schools meet in their common basic dogma: just ends can be attained by justified means, justified means used for just ends. Natural law attempts, by the justness of the ends, to "justify" the means,* positive law to "guarantee" the justness of the ends through the justification of the means



both such arguments present presuppositions which are rejected by benjamin on the basis that despite presenting ostensibly contrary arguments they both express the fundamental dogma that justification of the violent act is based on some relationship between means and ends. benjamin finds this unsatisfactory because it precludes the possibility of offering a critique of violence as a whole:

For if violence is a means, a criterion for criticizing it might seem immediately available. It imposes itself in the question whether violence, in a given case, is a means to a just or an unjust end. A critique of it would then be implied in a system of just ends. This, however, is not so. For what such a system, assuming it to be secure against all doubt, would contain is not a criterion for violence itself as a principle, but, rather, the criterion for cases of its use. The question would remain open whether violence, as a principle, could be a moral means even to just ends.



that is, benjamin is interested in whether violence can be justifiable at all, even if ends can be determined to be just. as the presuppositions of the doctrines of natural and positive law both forward a notion of justifiability based on the relationship between means and ends, it can argue only whether particular instances of violence can be justified and cannot deal with violence as a concept in the absolute sense. for this reason benjamin demands a more sophisticated approach

to examine this question, benjamin needs to identify the relationship between law and violence in the first place. he elaborates that this relationship is constituted by two fundamental points:

For the function of violence in lawmaking is twofold, in the sense that lawmaking pursues as its end, with violence as the means, what is to be established as law, but at the moment of instatement does not dismiss violence; rather, at this very moment of lawmaking, it specifically establishes as law not an end unalloyed by violence, but one necessarily and intimately bound to it, under the title of power. Lawmaking is power making, and, to that extent, an immediate manifestation of violence.



that is, on the first point, benjamin recognises that violence is the means through which law is established. following from this, he recognises that the end enshrined by law is the assertion of power

this immediately poses something curious - if violence establishes what law is, then the violence integral to the institution and existence of law must not necessarily be lawful in the formal sense. that is, law has not always existed, and our society has been host to the conflict and usurpation of competing systems of laws. therefore the violence that establishes law must necessarily at some point existed a. outside formal legal edicts and b. in contradiction to existing formal legal edicts

this leads us to recognise that benjamin is asserting a concept of law that is not purely reducible to that which is sanctioned a formal legal system. benjamin in fact recognises that law is host to both formally sanctioned and formally unsanctioned violence. if the violence bound to law is used as a means to the entrenchment of power that is not formally sanctioned by existing acknowledged legal forms, this is lawmaking violence. if the violence bound to law is used as a means to the entrenchment of power that is coherent with recognised existing formal legal principles this is law-preserving violence

to put this in even simpler terms, law comprises two fundamental mechanisms of violence. one is violence that is mobilised in accordance with existing "laws" as they are recognised historically in order to entrench a projection of power. second is violence that also serves to entrench a projection of power but does so contrary to or ignorant of existing legal forms as they are recognised

it's important to note that while the latter is known as lawmaking violence, it does not necessarily imply that it will result in the formal codification of new legal principles. benjamin makes this quite clear, as he recognises it as a salient factor in conditions long preceding formal constitutional legal systems:

Military violence is in the first place used quite directly, as predatory violence, toward its ends. Yet it is very striking that even—or, rather, precisely —in primitive conditions that know hardly the beginnings of constitutional relations, and even in cases where the victor has established himself in invulnerable possession, a peace ceremony is entirely necessary.



benjamin proposes external military intervention as perhaps the most clear example of lawmaking violence, as it is violence mobilised in service of the projection of power that will necessarily exist in clear violation of the norms of law of a sovereign power. at the point at which an invading forced has dispossessed and decimated their opponent, even in primitive times preceding formal legal systems, this decimation is presented as the new lawful norm as enshrined by a peace ceremony

this is where you (huey) make your first fundamental mischaracterisation of benjamin's theses. because stalin rejects "rule of law" in the liberal sense, you as such pose the soviet union mobilising violence against and outside of law in the benjaminian sense. because benjamin presents "divine violence" as violence that exists outside of and contrary to law, this must mean that violence pursuant of the dictatorship of the proletariat in the ussr can be understood as "divine violence"

however, a rejection of bourgeois "rule of law" is only the rejection of law as it is historically understood as formal legal principles. as i should have been able to illustrate thus far, this does not imply the rejection of law as a whole in the benjaminian sense. in benjamin's understanding, law is in fact any instrumentalisation of violence in service of the projection of power. the actions of the soviet union, as are the actions of any state or sovereign power, are categorically expressions of law according to benjamin. even if not executed by the state, any violence executed as a means to the projection of power of the state is the expression of law

we can introduce the meaning of final line in the passage you quoted out of context:

Justice is the principle of all divine end making, power the principle of all mythical lawmaking.



this introduces an important distinction of categories in benjamin's thesis, that of the divine and of myth. it is important to note that here he directly counterposes "justice" from "lawmaking" here. while law may elaborate some internal system of values through which it asserts something may be justified, this is not actually justice in a real sense. law is purely the domain of power, it resolutely cannot truly accord anything the character of justice. law is mythic violence in the sense that it is a human attempt to attribute values that in truth can only be attributed by God

benjamin concludes that divine violence can never be recognised with certainty by man, a statement that renders any interpretation of benjamin as asserting divine violence as the character of any particular regime bizarre

divine violence - violence that justifies itself only in itself - not only cannot be recognised with certainty but also categorically cannot have happened yet because its appearance would signal the destruction of law. it's a concept tied to benjamin's notions of a future, singular, messianic emergence

Edited by blinkandwheeze ()

#77
way to turn benjamin into a bourgeois liberal instead of a communist. im too tired to respond tonight to the myriad problems with your interpretation but your smugness prevented me from saying nothing.
#78
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#79
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#80